Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 27.06.2025 01:20
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Circle IPO soars, giving hope to more startups waiting to go public - TechCrunch
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
WWE monitoring US-Iran situation with two Saudi Arabia shows set for next weekend - New York Post
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.